Technical Section
Q1: Consider the following statements about class-B amplifier and select the most appropriate option.
a. A class-B amplifier conducts only when there is input signal.
b. In a class-B amplifier, the Q-point is at the center of the load line.
c. A class-B amplifier conducts only for half-cycle of the input.
Options:
1. Only a and c are true
2. Only b and c are true
3. Only b is true
4. Only a and b are true
Answer: 1
Q2: Consider the following statements about the construction of repulsion motors and select the most appropriate option.
a. Stator winding of the distributed non-salient pole type is housed in the slots of a smooth-cored stator.
b. Carbon brushes that ride against the commutator are used for conducting current through the armature winding.
Options:
1. Both a and b are not true
2. Only b is true
3. Only a is true
4. Both a and b are true
Answer: 4
Q3: Which of the following is NOT an advantage of poly-phase induction motor?
Options:
1. It has sufficiently high efficiency.
2. Its speed decreases with an increase in load.
3. It requires minimum maintenance.
4. It starts up from rest and needs no extra starting motor.
Answer: 2
Q4: Consider the following statements about an indoor substation and select the most appropriate option.
a. The construction of an indoor substation is complicated.
b. These substations install beyond the 66 KV voltage level.
c. Cannot easily expand the installation of indoor substations.
d. The cost of an indoor substation is low.
Options:
1. Only b and c are true
2. Only b and d are true
3. Only a, c, and d are true
4. Only a, b, and c are true
Answer: 3
Q5: The dummy coils in DC machines are useful:
Options:
1. For better commutation
2. To reduce armature copper loss
3. To increase voltage generation
4. To mechanically balance armature
Answer: 4
Q6: Which of the following is NOT an advantage of autotransformer?
Options:
1. The short circuit current is lesser than that for the two winding transformer.
2. Less size for the same rating of two winding transformer.
3. Less copper loss than the equivalent two winding transformer.
4. Provides better regulation.
Answer: 1
Q7: Which of the following is correct about an ideal transformer?
Options:
1. The core has low permeability.
2. The core has high reluctance.
3. Eddy current and hysteresis losses are zero.
4. Primary and secondary winding have some resistance.
Answer: 3
Q8: Consider the following statements about a ripple counter and select the most appropriate option.
a. A ripple counter is a synchronous counter.
b. Every flip flop is triggered in synchronism with the clock.
Options:
1. Only b is true
2. Both a and b are not true
3. Only a is true
4. Both a and b are true
Answer: 2
Q9: The property of a coil due to which it opposes any change of current through it is known as:
Options:
1. Reluctance
2. Resistance
3. Capacitance
4. Inductance
Answer: 4
Q10: the execution of the given statements, determine the status of PSW.
Statements:
MOV A, #0BFH
ADD A, #1BH
Options:
1. 10111010
2. 01000101
3. 01000000
4. 01000100
Answer:3
Q11: Which of the following is an example of diamagnetic material?
Options:
1. Biotite
2. Siderite
3. Nontronite
4. Calcite
Answer: 4
Q12: In a single-phase semi-converter, for continuous conduction, freewheeling diode conducts for:
Options:
1. β - ∝
2. β + ∝
3. β
4. ∝
Answer: 4
Q13: Consider the following statements about junction breakdown of a p-n junction diode and select the most appropriate option.
a. The critical value of the voltage, at which the breakdown occurs is called breakdown voltage.
b. Breakdown voltage depends on the width of the depletion region.
c. The junction offers infinite resistance at the breakdown point.
Options:
1. Only a and c are correct
2. Only a and b are correct
3. Only b and c are correct
4. a, b, and c are correct
Answer: 2
Q14: Which of the following registers holds memory operands?
Options:
1. Flag register
2. Stack pointer
3. Data register
4. Instruction decoder
Answer: 3
Q15: A resistor in a circuit has a value of 500 Ω. It is desired to decrease its resistance to 300 Ω. The resistance to be connected in parallel with it is:
Options:
1. 740 Ω
2. 640 Ω
3. 650 Ω
4. 750 Ω
Answer: 4
Q16: Consider the following statements about Direct Memory Access (DMA) and select the most appropriate option.
a. It is dependent on the central processing unit (CPU).
b. It is used when a large amount of data is to be printed out from the memory of a computer.
Options:
1. Both a and b are not correct
2. Only b is correct
3. Both a and b are correct
4. Only a is correct
Answer: 2
Q17: The curve between the no-load generated EMF and the field current of a DC generator is known as:
Options:
1. Total characteristic
2. Magnetization characteristic
3. External characteristic
4. Internal characteristic
Answer: 2
Q18: Consider the following statements about an autotransformer and select the most appropriate option.
a. The primary and secondary are only electrically coupled.
b. The primary and secondary are only magnetically coupled.
c. The primary and secondary are magnetically as well as electrically coupled.
Options:
1. Only a is correct
2. All the statements are correct
3. Only c is correct
4. Only b is correct
Answer: 3
Q19: Consider the following statements about an ammeter and select the most appropriate option.
a. The ideal resistance of an ammeter is zero.
b. An ammeter is always connected in parallel with an element through which current is to be measured.
Options:
1. Both a and b are true
2. Only b is true
3. Only a is true
4. Both a and b are not true
Answer-3
Q20: The rate of change of energy is called:
Options:
1. Power
2. Voltage
3. Current
4. Kinetic energy
Answer-1
Q21: Select the correct combination from the given options.
Options:
1. Type B chopper − First-quadrant chopper
2. Type A chopper − Second-quadrant chopper
3. Type C chopper − Two-quadrant type-B chopper
4. Type E chopper − Fourth-quadrant chopper
Answer: 4
Q22: Which of the following is NOT an advantage of Field Effect Transistor (FET)?
Options:
1. No offset voltage
2. Small gain bandwidth product
3. Negative temperature coefficient
4. High input impedance
Answer: 2
Q23: The node which has only incoming branch is called:
Options:
1. Chain node
2. Sink node
3. Input node
4. Source node
Answer: 2
Q24: When the length of an overhead transmission line is about 50-150 km and line voltage is moderately high, it is considered as:
Options:
1. Neutral line
2. Long transmission lines
3. Short transmission line
4. Medium transmission lines
Answer: 4
Q25: Magnetite is an example of:
Options:
1. Electromagnetic material
2. Diamagnetic material
3. Ferromagnetic material
4. Paramagnetic material
Answer: 3
Q26: Consider the following statements about stability of a system and select the most appropriate option.
a. A system is said to be Bounded Input-Bounded Output stable if for every bounded input the output is bounded.
b. If for a bounded input the output is unbounded, then the system is said to be unstable.
Options:
1. Both a and b are not correct
2. Only a is correct
3. Both a and b are correct
4. Only b is correct
Answer: 3
Q27: Which of the following is a very accurate Analog to Digital Converter?
Options:
2. Ramp type ADC
3. Flash type ADC
4. Voltage to frequency ADC
Answer: 1
Q28: A load draws a power of 15 KW at a power factor of 0.8 lagging. The lagging kVAR drawn from the supply will be:
Options:
1. 9 kVAR
2. 12 kVAR
3. 11.25 kVAR
4. 14 kVAR
Answer: 3
Q29: Two identical SCRs are connected back to back in series with a load. If each SCR is fired at 90 degrees, a PMMC voltmeter across the load would read:
Options:
1. √2 × maximum voltage
2. Maximum voltage
3. 1
4. Zero
Answer: 4
Q30: The PIV of each diode in a bridge circuit i
s ______ that of the equivalent center-tap circuit.
Options:
1. One-half
2. Six times
3. Thrice
4. Five times
Answer: 1
Q31: The unknown value of the frequency of an input signal can be determined by using:
Options:
1. Wheatstone bridge
2. Wien parallel bridge
3. Corey Foster bridge
4. Hay’s bridge
Answer: 2
Q32: Which of the following is NOT an advantage of tunnel diode?
Options:
1. Voltage range over which it can be operated is less than 1 V
2. Low noise
3. High speed
4. Low power
Answer: 1
Q33: For eliminating the fifth harmonic from the output voltage wave of a DC chopper, the ripple factor should be:
Options:
1. 2
2. 7
3. 6
4. 5
Answer: 1
Q34: A basic three-phase inverter is a:
Options:
1. One-step bridge inverter
2. Four-step bridge inverter
3. Two-step bridge inverter
4. Six-step bridge inverter
Answer: 4
Q35: Power absorbed in a pure capacitive circuit is:
Options:
1. Unity
2. 100 W
3. Zero
4. 200 W
Answer: 3
Q36: Which of the following are characteristics of an op-amp as voltage follower?
Options:
1. Low input impedance
2. High output impedance
3. Low current gain
4. High input impedance
Answer: 4
Q37: A bridge-type cycloconverter consists of:
Options:
1. 6 thyristors
2. 8 thyristors
3. 2 thyristors
4. 4 thyristors
Answer: 2
Q38: Consider the following statements about magnetic circuit and select the most appropriate option.
a. Magnetic reluctance is dependent on magnetic field and flux density.
b. For magnetic circuit, energy is required to generate magnetic flux.
Options:
1. Both a and b are true
2. Only a is true
3. Only b is true
4. Both a and b are not true
Answer: 1
Q39: Consider the following statements about AC commutator motors and select the most appropriate option.
a. AC commutator motors have lower starting torque than AC induction motors.
b. A commutator motor can operate at a much higher speed than an induction motor.
Options:
1. Only a is correct
2. Both a and b are not correct
3. Only b is correct
4. Both a and b are correct
Answer: 3
Q40: What is the power delivered from a 30 V source if the current supplied by this source is 2 A?
Options:
1. 15 W
2. 60 W
3. 450 W
4. 32 W
Answer-2
Q41: Which of the following is an example of a sequential circuit?
Options:
1. Shift registers
2. Code converters
3. Encoders
4. Adders
Answer: 1
Q42: Thermal energy to electrical energy is done by:
Options:
1. Fuel cell
2. Solar cell
3. Thermoelectric generator
4. Battery
Answer: 3
Q43: A 50 KVA transformer has iron loss of 400 W and full-load copper loss of 800 W. If the power factor of the load is 0.8 lagging, the full-load efficiency of the transformer is:
Options:
1. 97.09 percent
2. 90 percent
3. 94.5 percent
4. 92.3 percent
Answer: 1
Q44: Consider the following statements about the advantages of N hydroelectric power plant and select the most appropriate option.
a. The plant has no standby losses.
b. The efficiency of the plant does not change with age.
c. Transportation and transmission costs are very high.
Options:
1. Only a is true
2. a, b, and c are true
3. a and b are true
4. Only b is true
Answer: 3
Q45: Which of the following is NOT an advantage of induction type energy meters?
Options:
1. The moving element has no electrical contact with the circuit.
2. They consume a considerable amount of power.
3. They are less affected by a stray magnetic field.
4. They have high torque-to-weight ratio.
Answer: 2
Q46: The pointer of an indicating instrument is generally made of:
Options:
1. Soft iron
2. Lead
3. Gold
4. Aluminium
Answer: 4
Q47: Convert (110110)₂ to its decimal equivalent.
Options:
1. (56)₁₀
2. (58)₁₀
3. (52)₁₀
4. (54)₁₀
Answer: 4
Q48: At unity power factor, the effect of armature reaction on the main field flux of an alternator is:
Options:
1. Strengthening of main flux
2. A demagnetising effect
3. Distortion of main flux
4. Weakening of main flux
Answer: 3
Q49: The flag that indicates whether the total number of 1s in the accumulator after execution of any program is odd or even is known as:
Options:
1. Zero flag
2. Parity flag
3. Carry flag
4. Sign flag
Answer: 2
Q50: The expression for the resolution of an n-bit
Digital to Analog converter is given by:
Options:
1. R= Vref/2n+1
2. R= Vref/ 2n-1
3. R= vref/ 2n
4. R= 2n-1
Answer: 2
Q51: A coil having a resistance of 8 Ω and an inductance of 0.019 H is connected across a 100 V, 50 Hz supply. Calculate the value of impedance.
Options:
1. 6.68 Ω
2. 8.89 Ω
3. 7.72 Ω
4. 9.98 Ω
Answer: 4
Q52: Which of the following is a single-byte instruction in the 8085 microprocessor?
Options:
1. MVI A, 05(H)
2. ORI 10(H)
3. MOV A, C
4. SBI 05(H)
Answer: 3
Q53: Which of the following are NOT applications of Active Low Pass Filters?
Options:
1. Broadcast receivers
2. Wave analyzers
3. Audio amplifiers
4. Equalizers
Answer: 1
Q54: Which of the following statements about EHV AC transmission is NOT correct?
Options:
1. Voltage regulation improves.
2. Transmission efficiency decreases.
3. Line losses are reduced.
4. Reduction in conductor material requirement.
Answer: 2
Q55: The value of alternating quantity at any particular instant is called:
Options:
1. Amplitude
2. Peak value
3. Average value
4. Instantaneous value
Answer: 4
Q56: Which of the following is NOT true about IGBT?
Options:
1. It is a majority-carrier device.
2. It is a three-terminal power semiconductor device.
3. It is a voltage-controlled device.
4. It has a positive temperature coefficient.
Answer: 1
Q57: The amount of gain in decibels that can be added to the loop before the closed-loop system becomes unstable is known as:
Options:
1. Phase margin
2. Gain margin
3. Resonant peak
4. Bandwidth
Answer: 2
Q58: According to Thevenin’s theorem, the equivalent resistance of the circuit as viewed from two terminals is found by replacing the current sources by ______ circuits.
Options:
1. Series
2. Parallel
3. Open
4. Short
Answer: 3
Q59: An energy meter having a meter constant of 1400 rev. per kWh is found to make 6 revolutions in 54 seconds. The load power is:
Options:
1. 200 W
2. 285.71 W
3. 303.67 W
4. 188.23 W
Answer: 2
Q60: If P is the capital cost of equipment, n is the useful life of the equipment in years, S is the scrap value and x is the annual unit depreciation, then using the
diminishing value method:
Options:
1. P = S(1 - x)(n - 1)
2. S = P(1 – x)
3. S = P(1 - x)ⁿ
4. S = P(1 + x)
Answer: 3
Q61: Which of the following does NOT belong to buses used in the 8085 microprocessor?
Options:
1. Subroutine bus
2. Control bus
3. Address bus
4. Data bus
Answer: 1
Q62: Consider the following statements about an autotransformer and select the most appropriate option.
a. An ideal op-amp has zero input resistance and zero gain.
b. The ideal value of CMMR for an op-amp is infinity.
Options:
1. Only a is true
2. Only b is true
3. Both a and b are true
4. Both a and b are not true
Answer: 2
Q63: Consider the following statements about N-type semiconductor and select the most appropriate option.
a. N-type semiconductor is obtained by adding trivalent as impurity.
b. Holes constitute the majority carriers.
Options:
1. Both a and b are not true
2. Both a and b are true
3. Only a is true
4. Only b is true
Answer: 1
Q64: Which of the following conditions is true when a two-port network is said to be reciprocal?
Options:
1. A = D
2. Z₁₁ = Z₂₂
3. Z₁₂ = Z₂₁
4. Y₁₁ = Y₂₂
Answer: 3
Q65: Which type of bridge is used to measure medium resistance?
Options:
1. Hay’s bridge
2. Anderson’s bridge
3. Corey Foster bridge
4. Kelvin double bridge
Answer: 3
Q66: Which of the following statement is correct about dielectric material?
Options:
1. Dielectric materials have a low specific resistance and zero temperature coefficient of resistance.
2. Dielectric materials have a low specific resistance and positive temperature coefficient of resistance.
3. If the voltage across dielectric material becomes too small, dielectric breakdown happens and the material begins to conduct current.
4. Dielectric materials have a high specific resistance and negative temperature coefficient of resistance.
Answer: 4
Q67: Select the correct match from the following options.
Options:
1. Controlled rectifier – Solar cell
2. Cycloconverter – High power AC drive
3. Voltage controller – Magnet power supply
4. Inverter – Ceiling fan drive
Answer: 2
Q68: A series R-L-C circuit becomes resonant when the algebraic sum of Xₗ and Xc equals to:
Options:
1. 0.5
2. 0.8
3. 1
4. 0
Answer: 4
Q69: For a firing circuit, the maximum value of source voltage is 120 V. Find the resistance to be inserted to limit the anode current to 2.5 A.
Options:
1. 48 Ω
2. 0.021 Ω
3. 300 Ω
4. 117.5 Ω
Answer: 1
Q70: A wire of 225 Ω resistance is cut int
o how many pieces so that when they are connected in parallel the resultant is 1 Ω?
Options:
1. 35
2. 15
3. 25
4. 5
Answer: 2
Q71: What is the equation of a 50 Hz current sine wave having an RMS value of 40 A?
Options:
1. i = 56.57 sin(315t)
2. i = 69.28 sin(157t)
3. i = 28.28 sin(317t)
4. i = 23.09 sin(257t)
Answer: 1
Q72: Consider the following statements about transistor circuits and select the most appropriate option.
a. Amongst three currents (collector current, base current, and emitter current) of a transistor, collector current is the largest.
b. Amongst three currents (collector current, base current, and emitter current) of a transistor, emitter current is the largest.
c. Amongst three currents (collector current, base current, and emitter current) of a transistor, base current is the largest.
Options:
1. a, b, and c are correct
2. Only c is correct
3. Only a is correct
4. Only b is correct
Answer: 4
Q73: Which of the following statements is NOT true about Nyquist stability criterion?
Options:
1. The Nyquist plot of the open loop transfer function can be easily obtained.
2. Nyquist stability criterion provides information about absolute stability only.
3. From Nyquist plot, we can find the frequency domain specifications.
4. Nyquist plot can be used to determine the stability of time delay systems.
Answer: 2
Q74: An electric iron is marked 230 V, 500 W. If the iron is used for 1.5 hours daily for 30 days in a month, then what will be the monthly bill at ₹4 per unit?
Options:
1. ₹80
2. ₹75
3. ₹90
4. ₹95
Answer: 3
Q75: The Boolean expression A + AB simplifies to:
Options:
1. B
2. AB
3. A + B
4. A
Answer: 4
Q76: The ratio of actual mutual inductance present between the two coils to the maximum possible value is defined as:
Options:
1. Mutual inductance
2. Coefficient of coupling
3. Intensity of magnetization
4. Self-inductance
Answer: 2
Q77: A high-frequency AC signal is applied to a PMMC instrument. If the RMS value of the AC signal is 3 V, the reading of the instrument will be:
Options:
1. 3√3 V
2. Zero
3. 6√3 V
4. 3 V
Answer: 2
Q78: Which of the following is an insulating material?
Options:
1. Carbon
2. Manganin
3. Nichrome
4. Perlite
Answer: 4
Q79: De-Sauty’s bridge is used to measure:
Options:
1. Inductance
2. Capacitance
3. Frequency
4. Resistance
Answer: 2
Q80: If it takes 500 ms to use 14,000 J of energy, then the value of power is:
Options:
1. 28 W
2. 28 KJ
3. 28 J
4. 28 KW
Answer:4
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